o level m1-r5 mcq questions -

o level m1-r5 mcq questions

Prepare for O Level IT Tools & Network Basics (Module M1-R5.1) exam with these MCQs covering all topics in the syllabus . Topic wise o level m1-r5 mcq questions multiple choice questions for chapters like Introduction to Computer, Operating Systems, Productivity Tools (Writer, Calc, Impress), Internet & WWW, Email & e-Governance, Digital Financial Tools, Cybersecurity basics. Mock tests on CCCWifiStudy provides instant feedback and timed practice to simulate exam conditions and improve your readiness cccwifistudy.com . Good for self study or group revision, these MCQs will help you identify your strengths and weaknesses and you will feel confident when you enter the exam hall.

Which of the following is an example of volatile memory?
A. Hard disk drive
B. Read-Only Memory (ROM)
C. Random Access Memory (RAM)
D. Flash memory
(Answer: C)
Which memory type retains data even when power is turned off?
A. Cache
B. RAM
C. ROM
D. Registers
(Answer: C)
Magnetic storage is a form of non-volatile memory that uses magnetization to store data. Which device is the most common example?
A. SSD
B. Optical disc
C. HDD
D. USB flash drive
(Answer: C)
Which storage hierarchy level offers the fastest access time?
A. Secondary storage
B. Main memory (RAM)
C. Cache memory
D. Cloud storage
(Answer: C)
What does “volatile” in volatile memory refer to?
A. High speed
B. Requires power to retain data
C. Read-only nature
D. Non-erasable storage
(Answer: B)

1.2 CPU & Components

The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is often called the “brain” of the computer because it:
A. Stores all data permanently
B. Executes instructions and processes data
C. Manages network connections
D. Controls power supply
(Answer: B)
Which of the following is NOT a component of the CPU?
A. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
B. Control Unit (CU)
C. Memory Management Unit (MMU)
D. Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)
(Answer: D)
Cache memory is typically located:
A. On the hard disk
B. On the motherboard, close to the CPU
C. In the power supply
D. On external USB drives
(Answer: B)
Which unit of the CPU handles floating-point calculations?
A. ALU
B. CU
C. FPU
D. MMU
(Answer: C)
What does “clock speed” of a CPU measure?
A. Number of cores
B. Instructions per second (in GHz)
C. Cache size
D. Power consumption
(Answer: B)

2. Software & Operating Systems

Which of these is NOT an operating system?
A. Windows 10
B. macOS
C. Linux
D. Microsoft Word
(Answer: D)
The OS component that manages file operations, memory, and processes is called the:
A. User interface
B. Kernel
C. BIOS
D. Driver
(Answer: B)
A multi-user operating system allows:
A. Only one user at a time
B. Multiple users to run programs concurrently
C. Single-tasking
D. No networking features
(Answer: B)
In virtual memory, data is temporarily moved to:
A. Cache
B. Secondary storage (page file)
C. CPU registers
D. Network storage
(Answer: B)
Which scheduling algorithm gives each process a fixed time slot in a cyclic order?
A. First-come, first-served
B. Shortest job next
C. Round-robin
D. Priority scheduling
(Answer: C)

3. Application Software

Which of the following is NOT an example of application software?
A. Web browser
B. Spreadsheet
C. Device driver
D. Database management system
(Answer: C)
What type of software is Microsoft Excel?
A. Operating system
B. Spreadsheet application
C. Web server
D. Graphics driver
(Answer: B)
Which application would you use for video conferencing?
A. PowerPoint
B. Zoom
C. Notepad
D. MySQL
(Answer: B)
What is the purpose of utility software?
A. To perform specialized tasks like disk cleanup
B. To browse the internet
C. To develop operating systems
D. To edit multimedia
(Answer: A)
An integrated development environment (IDE) is used primarily for:
A. Compiling network protocols
B. Writing and debugging software code
C. Managing databases
D. Encrypting files
(Answer: B)

4. Productivity Tools

4.1 Word Processing

In a word processor, the feature to check spelling and grammar is usually found under:
A. View
B. Insert
C. Review
D. Design
(Answer: C)
To create a table of contents automatically, you must use:
A. Manual numbering
B. Heading styles
C. Text box
D. Page break
(Answer: B)
Mail merge is used to:
A. Combine two documents into one
B. Send mass personalized letters
C. Encrypt documents
D. Track document changes
(Answer: B)

4.2 Spreadsheets

Which function in Excel adds up a range of cells?
A. AVERAGE
B. COUNT
C. SUM
D. IF
(Answer: C)
Relative cell referencing adjusts when:
A. You sort data
B. You copy formulas to another cell
C. You switch spreadsheets
D. You print the document
(Answer: B)
To create a chart from data, you use the:
A. Data Validation tool
B. Pivot Table
C. Insert Chart feature
D. Goal Seek
(Answer: C)

4.3 Presentation Software

In PowerPoint, to animate an object you go to:
A. Design tab
B. Transitions tab
C. Animations tab
D. Review tab
(Answer: C)
A slide master is used to:
A. Insert videos
B. Apply consistent formatting to all slides
C. Check spelling
D. Record narration
(Answer: B)
Presenter View allows you to see:
A. All slides at once
B. Next slide and speaker notes while presenting
C. Hidden slides only
D. Audience questions
(Answer: B)

5. File Management & OS Utilities

Which command lists files in a directory on Windows?
A. ls
B. dir
C. list
D. show
(Answer: B)
To change file attributes to hidden in Windows, you use:
A. attrib +h
B. hidefile
C. chattr
D. sethidden
(Answer: A)
Disk fragmentation tools are used to:
A. Partition the disk
B. Rearrange fragmented data for faster access
C. Encrypt files
D. Delete temporary files
(Answer: B)
A backup utility’s primary purpose is to:
A. Defragment the disk
B. Restore deleted files automatically
C. Copy data to another location for safekeeping
D. Monitor network traffic
(Answer: C)
Which file system is commonly used by Windows?
A. ext4
B. NTFS
C. HFS+
D. FAT32
(Answer: B)

6. Internet & Email

O level m1r5 mcq questions with answers

HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. It is used to:
A. Secure email transmission
B. Transfer web pages over the Internet
C. Encrypt files on a server
D. Connect remote desktops
(Answer: B)
Which port does HTTPS (secure HTTP) use by default?
A. 21
B. 80
C. 443
D. 25
(Answer: C)
SMTP is the protocol for:
A. Receiving email
B. Sending email
C. Browsing websites
D. File transfer
(Answer: B)
To subscribe to an RSS feed you use:
A. FTP client
B. RSS reader
C. Web browser only
D. SSH client
(Answer: B)

7. Network Fundamentals

7.1 Topologies

Which topology connects each node to exactly two other nodes in a closed loop?
A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh
(Answer: C)
A topology that combines characteristics of two or more basic topologies is called:
A. Hybrid
B. Daisy chain
C. Linear bus
D. Extended star
(Answer: A)
In a star topology, all devices connect to a:
A. Single cable
B. Central hub or switch
C. Ring network
D. Mesh fabric
(Answer: B)
Which topology provides point-to-point connections between all pairs of nodes?
A. Partial mesh
B. Full mesh
C. Bus
D. Tree
(Answer: B)

7.2 Protocols & Devices

TCP/IP stands for Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol. It is the foundation of the Internet’s communications.
A. True
B. False
(Answer: A)
Which device forwards data packets between different networks based on IP addresses?
A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Bridge
(Answer: C)
Which protocol is used to automatically assign IP addresses on a network?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. SNMP
(Answer: C)
The primary function of a network switch is to:
A. Connect different networks
B. Forward frames within the same LAN
C. Translate domain names
D. Encrypt network traffic
(Answer: B)

8. Emerging Technologies & Digital Tools

“Internet of Things” (IoT) refers to:
A. A type of network cable
B. Devices connected and exchanging data over the Internet
C. A programming language
D. A cybersecurity standard
(Answer: B)
Blockchain technology is primarily used for:
A. File compression
B. Distributed, tamper-evident transaction ledgers
C. High-speed memory
D. Routing protocols
(Answer: B)

9. Basic Cybersecurity

Which of the following is a form of malware that demands payment to restore system access?
A. Worm
B. Ransomware
C. Spyware
D. Adware
(Answer: B)
A firewall’s main purpose is to:
A. Physically secure the server room
B. Monitor and control incoming/outgoing network traffic
C. Encrypt files on disk
D. Manage user passwords
(Answer: B)
Phishing is primarily a type of ______ that uses deceptive emails to trick users into revealing personal data.
A. Distributed denial-of-service
B. Malware
C. Ransomware
D. Social engineering
(Answer: D)Social engineering is the use of ______ to manipulate in
dividuals into divulging confidential information.
A. Brute-force algorithms
B. Psychological influence
C. Network scanners
D. Encryption techniques
(Answer: B)

o level m1-r5 mcq questions
A VPN creates a ______ that extends a private network across a public one to secure data transmission.
A. Proxy
B. Firewall
C. Server
D. Tunnel
(Answer: D)
1. Antivirus software is designed to ______ computer systems from malware such as viruses and worms.
  A. Encrypt
  B. Monitor
  C. Archive
  D. Protect
  (Answer: D)
2. An intrusion detection system (IDS) ______ network traffic and system activities for malicious behavior or policy violations.
  A. Blocks
  B. Encrypts
  C. Monitors
  D. Archives
  (Answer: C)
3. Symmetric encryption uses ______ key(s) for both encryption and decryption.
  A. Different
  B. Public
  C. A single (same)
  D. Private
  (Answer: C)
4. Asymmetric encryption involves ______ keys for encryption and decryption.
  A. No
  B. Two (public/private)
  C. One
  D. Three
  (Answer: B)
5. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is used to manage digital ______ and public-key encryption.
  A. Passwords
  B. Sessions
  C. Certificates
  D. Firewalls
  (Answer: C)
6. Two-factor authentication (2FA) requires ______ types of credentials to grant access.
  A. One
  B. Two
  C. Three
  D. Four
  (Answer: B)
7. SSL/TLS protocols provide ______ and integrity for data in transit over networks.
  A. Confidentiality
  B. Compression
  C. Redundancy
  D. Authentication
  (Answer: A) en.wikipedia.org
10. Mobile & Wireless Technologies (61–70)
1. Wi-Fi is based on the IEEE ____ standard family for wireless LANs.
  A. 802.3
  B. 802.11
  C. 802.15
  D. 802.16
  (Answer: B)
2. Bluetooth is primarily used for ______ networking over short distances.
  A. Local area
  B. Personal area
  C. Wide area
  D. Metropolitan area
  (Answer: B)
3. NFC technology enables communication between devices at distances of up to ____ cm.
  A. 10
  B. 4
  C. 20
  D. 1
  (Answer: B)
4. LTE is considered a transitional ____ technology.
  A. 3G
  B. 4G
  C. 5G
  D. Wi-Fi
  (Answer: B)
5. 5G New Radio (5G NR) was deployed worldwide beginning in _____.
  A. 2010
  B. 2015
  C. 2019
  D. 2022
  (Answer: C)
6. A mobile application installed on a device is called a(n) _____.
  A. Web app
  B. Native app
  C. Desktop app
  D. Browser
  (Answer: B)
7. BYOD policies allow employees to use ______ for work.
  A. Company laptops only
  B. Personal devices
  C. Public computers
  D. Shared terminals
  (Answer: B)
8. MDM software is used to manage and secure ______ devices in an organization.
  A. Desktop
  B. Mobile
  C. Network
  D. Server
  (Answer: B)
9. Creating a Wi-Fi hotspot on a smartphone uses its ______ connection to share Internet.
  A. Bluetooth
  B. Ethernet
  C. Cellular
  D. NFC
  (Answer: C)
10. Tethering allows a device to share its Internet via ______ or Bluetooth.
  A. Wi-Fi
  B. LAN
  C. RFID
  D. USB
  (Answer: A)
11. Cloud & Virtualization (71–80)
1. Cloud computing provides on-demand network access to a pool of shareable resources with self-service provisioning.
  A. True
  B. False
  (Answer: A)
2. SaaS stands for Software as a Service and is usually accessed via a _____.
  A. VPN
  B. Web browser
  C. USB drive
  D. Desktop client
  (Answer: B)
3. PaaS allows users to deploy and manage applications without handling the underlying _____.
  A. Hardware and OS
  B. Source code
  C. Databases
  D. Version control
  (Answer: A)
4. IaaS provides virtualized computing resources such as servers and storage.
  A. True
  B. False
  (Answer: A)
5. Virtualization enables multiple _____ to run on a single physical host.
  A. Applications
  B. Virtual machines
  C. Databases
  D. Domains
  (Answer: B)
6. A Type 1 hypervisor runs _____ the host operating system.
  A. Above
  B. Below
  C. With
  D. Inside
  (Answer: B)
7. A Type 2 hypervisor runs _____ the host operating system.
  A. Above
  B. Below
  C. Natively
  D. Hardware-based
  (Answer: A)
8. Containerization packages applications into lightweight _____.
  A. Virtual machines
  B. Snapshots
  C. ISO images
  D. Containers
  (Answer: D)
9. Docker is a platform for _____ applications in containers.
  A. Encrypting
  B. Deploying
  C. Downloading
  D. Defragmenting
  (Answer: B)
10. Kubernetes is an open-source tool for orchestrating containerized _____ at scale.
  A. Firewalls
  B. Networks
  C. Applications
  D. Backups
  (Answer: C)
12. System Maintenance & Troubleshooting (81–90)
1. An OS update typically delivers new features, whereas a patch fixes _____ in existing software.
  A. Bugs
  B. Licenses
  C. Users
  D. Files
  (Answer: A)
2. Updating a device driver improves _____.
  A. Web browsing
  B. Encryption
  C. Device compatibility
  D. Search speed
  (Answer: C)
3. Booting into Safe Mode loads only _____ drivers and services.
  A. All
  B. Essential
  C. CD-ROM
  D. Wireless
  (Answer: B)
4. Creating a system restore point records current system _____.
  A. State and settings
  B. User profiles
  C. Network shares
  D. Hardware models
  (Answer: A)
5. Event logs record system and application _____.
  A. Errors and warnings
  B. User passwords
  C. Software licenses
  D. Screen captures
  (Answer: A)
6. Preventive maintenance involves regularly scheduled _____.
  A. Data compression
  B. System checks and updates
  C. Hardware replacements
  D. Security training
  (Answer: B)
7. The first step in troubleshooting is to _____.
  A. Identify the problem
  B. Reformat the disk
  C. Update BIOS
  D. Reinstall the OS
  (Answer: A)
8. Disk cleanup removes temporary and _____ files.
  A. Log
  B. Hidden
  C. System
  D. User
  (Answer: A)
9. Disk defragmentation rearranges fragmented data for faster _____.
  A. Encryption
  B. Backup
  C. Access
  D. Printing
  (Answer: C)
10. Performance monitoring tracks system resource _____.
  A. Usage
  B. Licensing
  C. Encryption levels
  D. Firewall rules
  (Answer: A)
13. Backup & Recovery (91–100)
1. A full backup copies ____ data every time.
  A. Changed
  B. All
  C. System only
  D. Application only
  (Answer: B)
2. An incremental backup copies data changed since the ____ backup.
  A. Last full
  B. Penultimate
  C. Initial
  D. Weekly
  (Answer: A)
3. A differential backup copies data changed since the last ____ backup.
  A. Incremental
  B. Full
  C. Snapshot
  D. Mirror
  (Answer: B)
4. Mirror backup creates an exact ____ of the source.
  A. Archive
  B. Duplicate
  C. Map
  D. Log
  (Answer: B)
5. A snapshot backup captures the system state at a specific _____.
  A. Backup schedule
  B. Moment in time
  C. User login
  D. Power cycle
  (Answer: B)
6. Continuous data protection backs up data in _____.
  A. Scheduled intervals
  B. Real time
  C. Batches
  D. Daily
  (Answer: B)
7. RAID 1 provides data redundancy through _____.
  A. Striping
  B. Mirroring
  C. Parity
  D. Compression
  (Answer: B)
8. Cloud backup stores data on _____.
  A. Tape libraries
  B. Remote servers
  C. USB drives
  D. DVDs
  (Answer: B)
9. Local backup keeps data on devices such as _____.
  A. NAS
  B. Cloud
  C. Email servers
  D. Websites
  (Answer: A)
10. Version control systems (like Git) manage ____ of files.
  A. Permissions
  B. Transfers
  C. Encryption
  D. Versions
  (Answer: D)

Subscribe Our Youtube Channel For Live CLasses

Subscribe Our Youtube Channel